Money Market — Set 2
Banking · मुद्रा बाजार · Questions 11–20 of 80
What does 'SDF' stand for in the context of RBI's liquidity management?
Correct Answer: B. Standing Deposit Facility
• **Standing Deposit Facility (SDF)** = introduced by RBI in April 2022 (Union Budget 2022-23 legislative backing); it allows banks to park excess liquidity with the RBI without any collateral in return — unlike the reverse repo where RBI provides government securities as collateral. • **SDF replaced fixed reverse repo as the floor** — since its introduction, SDF Rate has become the floor of the interest rate corridor; the corridor is: SDF Rate (floor) — Repo Rate (policy rate) — MSF Rate (ceiling). • Because SDF requires no collateral from RBI, it gives RBI more flexibility to absorb large-scale excess liquidity; it was especially needed post-COVID when massive liquidity was injected into the system. • 💡 Standard Deposit Facility is wrong — no such RBI instrument exists; Statutory Deposit Fund is wrong — 'Statutory' here is a distractor; SDF has nothing to do with statutory requirements; Systemic Deposit Facility is wrong — also a fabricated term; only 'Standing Deposit Facility' is correct.
A 'Ways and Means Advance' (WMA) is a facility provided by RBI to whom?
Correct Answer: A. Governments
• **Governments** = Ways and Means Advances (WMA) is a short-term credit facility extended by RBI to both the Central Government and State Governments to bridge temporary mismatches between their receipts and expenditures within a financial year. • **Repayment within 90 days** — WMA must be repaid within 90 days; if the government overdrafts beyond the WMA limit, it attracts a higher penal interest rate; this ensures fiscal discipline. • WMA is essentially a short-term overdraft for the government; it prevents technical default by the government when tax receipts are delayed but expenditures must continue; the interest rate on WMA is linked to the Repo Rate. • 💡 General Public is wrong — individuals cannot access WMA; it is an exclusive facility for Central/State governments; Foreign Investors is wrong — foreign entities have no access to RBI's WMA window; Commercial Banks is wrong — banks access RBI funds through the LAF Repo, MSF, or SDF — not through WMA.
Which rate is defined as the rate at which banks park their excess funds with the RBI?
Correct Answer: A. Reverse Repo Rate
• **Reverse Repo Rate** = the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India absorbs liquidity from commercial banks by borrowing from them overnight against government securities; from the bank's perspective, it is 'parking' surplus funds with RBI and earning this rate. • **Reverse Repo is below Repo Rate** — in the LAF corridor, Reverse Repo Rate traditionally = Repo Rate − 25 bps; since April 2022, the SDF Rate has effectively replaced the fixed reverse repo as the operational floor of the corridor. • When RBI raises the Reverse Repo Rate, banks prefer to park funds with RBI instead of lending in the market, which reduces credit supply and helps control inflation. • 💡 Bank Rate is wrong — it is the rate at which RBI rediscounts bills of exchange; currently mainly used to calculate penal interest on CRR/SLR defaults, not related to parking surplus funds; MSF Rate is wrong — MSF is an overnight BORROWING window for banks (not parking); Repo Rate is wrong — under repo, RBI LENDS to banks; reverse repo is the opposite.
What is the primary feature of a 'Zero-Coupon Bond' often seen in the money market?
Correct Answer: D. It pays no periodic interest
• **It pays no periodic interest** = Zero-coupon bonds do not make any coupon (interest) payments during their tenure; instead, they are issued at a price below their face value (at a discount) and redeemed at the full face value at maturity. • **Return = Discount, not coupon** — the investor's return is the difference between the purchase price (discounted) and the redemption price (face value); Treasury Bills are the classic example of zero-coupon money market instruments. • Zero-coupon instruments eliminate reinvestment risk (no intermediate cash flows to reinvest); the effective yield is built into the discount at issuance; the shorter the maturity, the smaller the discount relative to face value. • 💡 Zero maturity period is wrong — it is a nonsensical distractor; all bonds have a maturity period; No face value is wrong — zero-coupon bonds do have a face value; it is the coupon that is zero, not the face value; Issued at a premium is wrong — it is the exact opposite; zero-coupon bonds are issued at a DISCOUNT, not a premium.
Which of the following is a 'Secured' money market instrument?
Correct Answer: D. REPO
• **REPO (Repurchase Agreement)** = a secured, collateralised borrowing instrument; the borrower (usually a bank) sells government securities to the lender with an agreement to repurchase them at a predetermined price on a future date; the securities serve as collateral. • **Collateral = Government Securities** — because government securities back the transaction, repo is low-risk for the lender; the RBI conducts repos under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF); tri-party repos (TREPS via CCIL) allow broader participation by mutual funds and insurance companies. • Repos replaced CBLO (Collateralised Borrowing and Lending Obligation) in 2018 when TREPS was introduced; TREPS operates through CCIL as the central counterparty. • 💡 Commercial Paper is wrong — CP is an unsecured promissory note; no collateral backs it; only the issuer's creditworthiness provides security; Notice Money is wrong — it is an uncollateralised inter-bank lending instrument (2–14 days); Call Money is wrong — it is also uncollateralised overnight inter-bank lending; the absence of collateral is what defines call/notice money.
What is the 'Bank Rate' primarily used for currently?
Correct Answer: B. Calculating penal interest
• **Calculating penal interest** = Bank Rate is the rate at which RBI is prepared to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other eligible commercial paper; in current practice, it is primarily used to calculate the penal rate of interest charged on banks that default on CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio) or SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio) obligations. • **Bank Rate = MSF Rate** — since May 2011, the Bank Rate has been aligned to the MSF Rate (currently Repo Rate + 25 bps); this linkage means Bank Rate moves automatically whenever the Repo Rate is changed by the MPC. • Historically Bank Rate was the key policy rate before Repo Rate became the dominant instrument; now it has largely ceremonial importance except for the penal interest calculation. • 💡 Buying gold is wrong — RBI purchases gold as part of forex reserve management, not under the Bank Rate mechanism; Lending to retail customers is wrong — commercial banks lend to retail customers at their own lending rates (like MCLR, repo-linked rates); Setting savings interest is wrong — savings account interest rates are set by banks themselves (subject to RBI deregulation guidelines), not pegged to Bank Rate.
In the Indian money market, 'CMB' stands for what?
Correct Answer: A. Cash Management Bills
• **Cash Management Bills (CMBs)** = short-term government securities introduced in 2010 by RBI; they are issued to bridge temporary cash shortfalls of the Central Government; their maturity is less than 91 days, making them shorter than the shortest standard T-Bill. • **Ad-hoc, not regular** — unlike T-Bills (auctioned weekly on a fixed schedule), CMBs are issued on an as-needed (ad-hoc) basis whenever the government faces temporary liquidity gaps; they carry the same characteristics as T-Bills (zero-coupon, issued at discount, redeemed at face value). • CMBs are non-standard and not regularly auctioned; they exist purely as a fiscal cash management tool; their short duration (<91 days) makes them highly liquid but not a permanent fixture in money market portfolios. • 💡 Capital Market Bonds is wrong — capital market instruments have long maturities (>1 year); CMBs are short-term money market instruments; Commercial Money Bills is wrong — this term does not exist in Indian financial regulation; Central Money Bonds is wrong — another fabricated term; only 'Cash Management Bills' is the correct full form of CMB.
What is the maximum limit for a single transaction in the 'Call Money' market?
Correct Answer: B. No specific limit
• **No specific limit** = RBI does not prescribe a maximum transaction amount for individual Call Money deals; the volume of borrowing/lending is determined by the liquidity needs of the participating banks and prevailing market conditions. • **However, prudential limits exist** — RBI regulates how much a bank can borrow or lend in the call money market as a percentage of its capital funds (to prevent over-reliance on short-term funds); these are exposure limits, not per-transaction caps. • The Call Money market is volatile and rates (Call Rate) can spike sharply on days of tight liquidity (like advance tax payment dates or quarter-end); RBI intervenes through LAF to smooth extreme rate movements. • 💡 Rs. 500 Crores is wrong — no such per-transaction cap is set by RBI for Call Money; Rs. 100 Crores is wrong — again, RBI imposes prudential (exposure) limits on a bank's overall call money position, not a per-deal cap of ₹100 crore; Rs. 1000 Crores is wrong — same reasoning; the correct answer is that there is no specific per-transaction maximum limit.
The parallel market where indigenous bankers and money lenders operate is known as ____.?
Correct Answer: D. Unorganized Money Market
• **Unorganized Money Market** = the informal segment of India's money market comprising indigenous bankers (Mahajans, Sahukars), moneylenders, Nidhis, and chit funds that operate outside the formal regulatory framework of the RBI. • **Not directly regulated by RBI** — participants in the unorganised market do not follow standardised interest rates, documentation, or RBI guidelines; lending rates can be very high; borrowers are typically small traders, farmers, and rural households with no access to formal banking. • The Organized Money Market, by contrast, consists of RBI, SEBI-regulated entities, scheduled commercial banks, PDs, mutual funds — all operating under formal RBI supervision. • 💡 Stock Market is wrong — it is a capital market (equities), not a money market; Organised Money Market is wrong — that is the formal, RBI-regulated segment (opposite of unorganised); Derivatives Market is wrong — it deals in financial contracts (futures, options) on exchanges; not the informal lending segment.
Which of the following is a hallmark of a 'Liquid' money market?
Correct Answer: C. Stability of interest rates
• **Stability of interest rates** = a well-functioning, liquid money market maintains stable and predictable short-term interest rates; participants can borrow or lend at rates close to the policy rate without large deviations, reflecting deep and efficient markets. • **Liquidity means easy entry/exit** — in a liquid market, instruments can be bought or sold quickly at prices close to their fair value with minimal transaction cost; this efficiency is essential for monetary policy transmission (RBI's rate signals reach the broader economy through the money market). • A stable money market also ensures that banks can meet reserve requirements without panic borrowing; extreme rate volatility (like in an illiquid market) signals systemic stress. • 💡 High price volatility is wrong — volatility is a sign of an illiquid or stressed market, not a liquid one; Very few participants is wrong — fewer participants reduce competition and liquidity; a liquid market has MANY participants; Low volume of trade is wrong — low trading volume reduces market depth and liquidity; a liquid market typically has HIGH volumes.