Centre-State Relations — Set 3
Indian Polity · केंद्र-राज्य संबंध · Questions 21–30 of 50
The 'Anandpur Sahib Resolution' of 1973 is associated with demanding greater autonomy for which state?
Correct Answer: B. Punjab
• **Anandpur Sahib Resolution, 1973 — Punjab** = passed by Akali Dal in Punjab, demanding that Centre's jurisdiction be restricted to only Defence, Foreign Affairs, Communications, and Currency. • **Centre-State autonomy demand** — it became a landmark document demanding greater autonomy for states and is frequently cited in discussions on Indian federalism. • 💡 Option A (West Bengal) produced its own 1977 Memorandum demanding federalism but that was a separate document; Option C (Tamil Nadu) set up the Rajamannar Committee in 1969 for Centre-State relations review; Option D (Assam) is associated with the Assam Accord (1985), not the Anandpur Sahib Resolution.
Which state government published a famous Memorandum in 1977 demanding the replacement of 'Union' with 'Federal' in the Constitution?
Correct Answer: C. West Bengal
• **West Bengal Memorandum, 1977** = the Left Front-led West Bengal government published a memorandum demanding India be called a 'Federal' government and seeking abolition of All India Services. • **Federalism vs Union** — the memorandum highlighted the tension between India's constitutional description as 'Union of States' and demands for a truly federal structure. • 💡 Option A (Tamil Nadu) appointed the Rajamannar Committee in 1969, not the 1977 Memorandum; Option B (Jammu and Kashmir) had special status under Article 370, not this memorandum; Option D (Kerala) has not published any comparable memorandum on federal restructuring.
The Rajamannar Committee on Centre-State relations was appointed by which State Government?
Correct Answer: D. Tamil Nadu
• **Rajamannar Committee, 1969 — Tamil Nadu** = appointed by the DMK government of Tamil Nadu to. • **Residuary powers to States** — the committee's key recommendation was to shift residuary legislative powers from Parliament to State Legislatures, reversing the existing unitary bias. • 💡 Option A (Andhra Pradesh) set up no such committee; Option B (Karnataka) is associated with other state demands but not Rajamannar; Option C (Kerala) has not appointed a committee specifically to study Centre-State relations.
'Education' was transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List by which Amendment Act?
Correct Answer: B. 42nd Amendment
• **42nd Amendment, 1976 — Education to Concurrent List** = transferred 'Education' from the State List to the Concurrent List, enabling Central legislation on education policy. • **Other transfers in 42nd Amendment** — Forests, Weights and Measures, and Protection of Wild Animals and Birds were also moved from State to Concurrent List in the same amendment. • 💡 Option A (44th Amendment, 1978) restored several rights curtailed by the 42nd Amendment but did NOT move Education back; Option C (86th Amendment, 2002) made elementary education a Fundamental Right under Article 21A; Option D (24th Amendment, 1971) gave Parliament power to amend Fundamental Rights.
Which legal doctrine is used to determine the true nature of a legislation when there is a conflict between lists?
Correct Answer: A. Doctrine of Pith and Substance
• **Doctrine of Pith and Substance** = used by courts to determine the 'true nature and character' of a legislation when it appears to touch upon a subject outside the legislature's assigned list. • **Incidental encroachment allowed** — if the pith (core substance) of the law falls within an authorised list, any incidental overlap into another list is ignored by courts. • 💡 Option B (Doctrine of Colorable Legislation) deals with a legislature doing indirectly what it cannot do directly; Option C (Doctrine of Severability) separates valid parts of a law from invalid parts; Option D (Doctrine of Eclipse) states that pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights become eclipsed but revive if the right is amended.
Article 254 establishes the 'Doctrine of Repugnancy', which resolves conflicts between Central and State laws on which list?
Correct Answer: A. Concurrent List
• **Article 254 — Doctrine of Repugnancy** = resolves conflicts between Central and State laws on Concurrent List subjects; Central law generally prevails over inconsistent State law. • **Presidential assent exception** — if a State law on a Concurrent subject has received the President's assent, it prevails in that State over the earlier Central law on the same matter. • 💡 Option B (State List) has no repugnancy issue as only States legislate on it; Option C (Union List) is exclusively for Parliament so no state law can conflict with it; Option D (Residuary List) is not a formal list — residuary subjects go to Parliament under Article 248.
Who is the Chairman of the Inter-State Council?
Correct Answer: D. Prime Minister
• **Inter-State Council Chairman — Prime Minister** = the Prime Minister heads the Inter-State Council, which was established in 1990 under Article 263 on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission. • **Composition** — members include Chief Ministers of all States, Chief Ministers/Administrators of UTs with legislatures, and 6 Union Cabinet Ministers nominated by the PM. • 💡 Option A (Union Home Minister) chairs all Zonal Councils and the Standing Committee of the Inter-State Council, not the main Inter-State Council; Option B (President) constitutes the Council but does not chair it; Option C (Vice President) has no role in the Inter-State Council.
Who are the members of a Zonal Council aside from the Union Home Minister?
Correct Answer: B. Chief Ministers of the States in the zone
• **Zonal Council Members — Chief Ministers** = Chief Ministers of all States in a zone are the core members; they also serve as Vice-Chairmen by rotation for one year each. • **Two ministers per state** — each State also nominates two other Ministers as additional members, making the council a broad multi-state body. • 💡 Option A (Chief Secretaries) are senior bureaucrats who may attend as advisors but are not formal members; Option C (Governors of the States) have no role in Zonal Councils; Option D (Finance Ministers of the States) are not the designated members — Chief Ministers and two other ministers are the state representatives.
Who chairs the Standing Committee of the Inter-State Council?
Correct Answer: D. Union Home Minister
• **Standing Committee of Inter-State Council — Union Home Minister** = the Union Home Minister chairs this committee, which was set up in 1996 to process matters before they go to the main Inter-State Council. • **Set up in 1996** — the Standing Committee was created to ensure continuous consultation and to prepare agenda items and recommendations for the main Council meetings. • 💡 Option A (Cabinet Secretary) is the senior-most civil servant coordinating Cabinet business but does not chair the Standing Committee; Option B (Finance Minister) has no designated role in the Inter-State Council structure; Option C (Prime Minister) chairs the main Inter-State Council, not its Standing Committee.
In which year did the Punchhi Commission on Centre-State Relations submit its report?
Correct Answer: A. 2010
• **Punchhi Commission Report — 2010** = the second commission on Centre-State Relations, headed by former Chief Justice M.M. Punchhi, was constituted in 2007 and submitted its report in 2010. • **Key recommendations** — the Punchhi Commission covered role of Governors, Emergency provisions, and Centre-State legislative relations in the changed political scenario of coalition governance. • 💡 Option B (2005) is incorrect — the commission was not even constituted until 2007; Option C (2012) is after the report was submitted; Option D (2007) was the year the Punchhi Commission was constituted, not when it submitted its report.