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Centre-State Relations — Set 3

Indian Polity · केंद्र-राज्य संबंध · Questions 2130 of 50

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1

The 'Anandpur Sahib Resolution' of 1973 is associated with demanding greater autonomy for which state?

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Correct Answer: B. Punjab

• **Anandpur Sahib Resolution, 1973 — Punjab** = passed by Akali Dal in Punjab, demanding that Centre's jurisdiction be restricted to only Defence, Foreign Affairs, Communications, and Currency. • **Centre-State autonomy demand** — it became a landmark document demanding greater autonomy for states and is frequently cited in discussions on Indian federalism. • 💡 Option A (West Bengal) produced its own 1977 Memorandum demanding federalism but that was a separate document; Option C (Tamil Nadu) set up the Rajamannar Committee in 1969 for Centre-State relations review; Option D (Assam) is associated with the Assam Accord (1985), not the Anandpur Sahib Resolution.

2

Which state government published a famous Memorandum in 1977 demanding the replacement of 'Union' with 'Federal' in the Constitution?

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Correct Answer: C. West Bengal

• **West Bengal Memorandum, 1977** = the Left Front-led West Bengal government published a memorandum demanding India be called a 'Federal' government and seeking abolition of All India Services. • **Federalism vs Union** — the memorandum highlighted the tension between India's constitutional description as 'Union of States' and demands for a truly federal structure. • 💡 Option A (Tamil Nadu) appointed the Rajamannar Committee in 1969, not the 1977 Memorandum; Option B (Jammu and Kashmir) had special status under Article 370, not this memorandum; Option D (Kerala) has not published any comparable memorandum on federal restructuring.

3

The Rajamannar Committee on Centre-State relations was appointed by which State Government?

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Correct Answer: D. Tamil Nadu

• **Rajamannar Committee, 1969 — Tamil Nadu** = appointed by the DMK government of Tamil Nadu to. • **Residuary powers to States** — the committee's key recommendation was to shift residuary legislative powers from Parliament to State Legislatures, reversing the existing unitary bias. • 💡 Option A (Andhra Pradesh) set up no such committee; Option B (Karnataka) is associated with other state demands but not Rajamannar; Option C (Kerala) has not appointed a committee specifically to study Centre-State relations.

4

'Education' was transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List by which Amendment Act?

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Correct Answer: B. 42nd Amendment

• **42nd Amendment, 1976 — Education to Concurrent List** = transferred 'Education' from the State List to the Concurrent List, enabling Central legislation on education policy. • **Other transfers in 42nd Amendment** — Forests, Weights and Measures, and Protection of Wild Animals and Birds were also moved from State to Concurrent List in the same amendment. • 💡 Option A (44th Amendment, 1978) restored several rights curtailed by the 42nd Amendment but did NOT move Education back; Option C (86th Amendment, 2002) made elementary education a Fundamental Right under Article 21A; Option D (24th Amendment, 1971) gave Parliament power to amend Fundamental Rights.

5

Which legal doctrine is used to determine the true nature of a legislation when there is a conflict between lists?

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Correct Answer: A. Doctrine of Pith and Substance

• **Doctrine of Pith and Substance** = used by courts to determine the 'true nature and character' of a legislation when it appears to touch upon a subject outside the legislature's assigned list. • **Incidental encroachment allowed** — if the pith (core substance) of the law falls within an authorised list, any incidental overlap into another list is ignored by courts. • 💡 Option B (Doctrine of Colorable Legislation) deals with a legislature doing indirectly what it cannot do directly; Option C (Doctrine of Severability) separates valid parts of a law from invalid parts; Option D (Doctrine of Eclipse) states that pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights become eclipsed but revive if the right is amended.

6

Article 254 establishes the 'Doctrine of Repugnancy', which resolves conflicts between Central and State laws on which list?

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Correct Answer: A. Concurrent List

• **Article 254 — Doctrine of Repugnancy** = resolves conflicts between Central and State laws on Concurrent List subjects; Central law generally prevails over inconsistent State law. • **Presidential assent exception** — if a State law on a Concurrent subject has received the President's assent, it prevails in that State over the earlier Central law on the same matter. • 💡 Option B (State List) has no repugnancy issue as only States legislate on it; Option C (Union List) is exclusively for Parliament so no state law can conflict with it; Option D (Residuary List) is not a formal list — residuary subjects go to Parliament under Article 248.

7

Who is the Chairman of the Inter-State Council?

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Correct Answer: D. Prime Minister

• **Inter-State Council Chairman — Prime Minister** = the Prime Minister heads the Inter-State Council, which was established in 1990 under Article 263 on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission. • **Composition** — members include Chief Ministers of all States, Chief Ministers/Administrators of UTs with legislatures, and 6 Union Cabinet Ministers nominated by the PM. • 💡 Option A (Union Home Minister) chairs all Zonal Councils and the Standing Committee of the Inter-State Council, not the main Inter-State Council; Option B (President) constitutes the Council but does not chair it; Option C (Vice President) has no role in the Inter-State Council.

8

Who are the members of a Zonal Council aside from the Union Home Minister?

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Correct Answer: B. Chief Ministers of the States in the zone

• **Zonal Council Members — Chief Ministers** = Chief Ministers of all States in a zone are the core members; they also serve as Vice-Chairmen by rotation for one year each. • **Two ministers per state** — each State also nominates two other Ministers as additional members, making the council a broad multi-state body. • 💡 Option A (Chief Secretaries) are senior bureaucrats who may attend as advisors but are not formal members; Option C (Governors of the States) have no role in Zonal Councils; Option D (Finance Ministers of the States) are not the designated members — Chief Ministers and two other ministers are the state representatives.

9

Who chairs the Standing Committee of the Inter-State Council?

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Correct Answer: D. Union Home Minister

• **Standing Committee of Inter-State Council — Union Home Minister** = the Union Home Minister chairs this committee, which was set up in 1996 to process matters before they go to the main Inter-State Council. • **Set up in 1996** — the Standing Committee was created to ensure continuous consultation and to prepare agenda items and recommendations for the main Council meetings. • 💡 Option A (Cabinet Secretary) is the senior-most civil servant coordinating Cabinet business but does not chair the Standing Committee; Option B (Finance Minister) has no designated role in the Inter-State Council structure; Option C (Prime Minister) chairs the main Inter-State Council, not its Standing Committee.

10

In which year did the Punchhi Commission on Centre-State Relations submit its report?

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Correct Answer: A. 2010

• **Punchhi Commission Report — 2010** = the second commission on Centre-State Relations, headed by former Chief Justice M.M. Punchhi, was constituted in 2007 and submitted its report in 2010. • **Key recommendations** — the Punchhi Commission covered role of Governors, Emergency provisions, and Centre-State legislative relations in the changed political scenario of coalition governance. • 💡 Option B (2005) is incorrect — the commission was not even constituted until 2007; Option C (2012) is after the report was submitted; Option D (2007) was the year the Punchhi Commission was constituted, not when it submitted its report.