NPA & SARFAESI — Set 3
Banking · NPA और SARFAESI · Questions 21–30 of 80
Which committee's recommendations led to the implementation of NPA classification norms in India?
Correct Answer: C. Narasimham Committee
• **Narasimham Committee** = the Committee on the Financial System (1991) chaired by M. Narasimham recommended introducing Income Recognition, Asset Classification (IRAC) norms and prudential provisioning standards — the foundation of India's NPA framework. • **Two reports** — the first Narasimham Committee Report (1991) introduced IRAC norms; the second (1998) strengthened them and recommended reducing Gross NPA ratio and improving capital adequacy. • These norms brought Indian banking standards in line with international Basel guidelines on credit risk. • 💡 Rangarajan Committee focused on monetary policy and agricultural credit, not NPA norms; Urjit Patel Committee (2013) was on monetary policy framework, not asset classification; Tendulkar Committee was on poverty estimation methodology, completely unrelated to banking.
Which of the following is considered a 'Qualitative' reason for an account becoming an NPA?
Correct Answer: A. Diverting funds for purposes other than the stated project
• **Diverting funds for purposes other than the stated project** = fund diversion is a qualitative (non-quantitative) indicator of NPA risk — it signals misuse of credit even before a payment actually defaults. • **Qualitative vs Quantitative** — quantitative indicators are objective numbers (overdue days, outstanding balance); qualitative indicators include fund diversion, siphoning of funds, management fraud, and failure to maintain books of accounts. • Banks flag qualitative indicators because they often precede quantitative defaults; detecting them early allows preventive action. • 💡 Balance falling below minimum limit is wrong — that is a quantitative metric (numerical threshold); Failure to pay interest for 90 days is wrong — that is the standard quantitative NPA trigger; Cheque bouncing is wrong — while it is a sign of stress, it is a quantitative operational event, not a qualitative strategic action.
What is the full form of DRAT in the context of debt recovery?
Correct Answer: D. Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal
• **Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal** = DRAT is the appellate body above the DRT — borrowers or banks unhappy with a DRT order can file an appeal at the DRAT within 30 days. • **Hierarchy** — the debt recovery chain under RDDBFI Act / SARFAESI runs: Bank action → DRT (first appeal by borrower within 30 days) → DRAT (second appeal) → High Court / Supreme Court. • There are five DRATs in India located in Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, and Allahabad, each overseeing multiple DRTs in their jurisdiction. • 💡 Department of Revenue and Tax is wrong — that is a central government fiscal body; District Recovery Assessment Team is wrong — no such body exists in Indian banking law; Debt Recovery Association and Trust is wrong — this is a fabricated option with no legal basis.
The term 'Sub-standard', 'Doubtful', and 'Loss' are used for the classification of?
Correct Answer: D. Non-Performing Assets
• **Non-Performing Assets** = Sub-standard, Doubtful, and Loss are the three formal RBI-prescribed categories of NPAs, each representing a progressively worse recovery outlook. • **The full asset quality ladder** — Standard (performing, 0 days overdue) → Sub-standard (NPA for ≤12 months) → Doubtful (NPA for 12–36 months) → Loss (NPA for 36+ months or identified irrecoverable by auditors/RBI). • Each category carries a different provisioning requirement, directly impacting the bank's profitability and capital adequacy. • 💡 Share prices are wrong — shares are classified by market cap (large/mid/small cap), not these terms; Fixed Assets are wrong — fixed assets use depreciation accounting, not NPA categories; Bank deposits are wrong — deposits are liabilities of a bank, not assets subject to NPA classification.
What is the maximum time a bank can wait before classifying a sub-standard asset as a doubtful asset?
Correct Answer: A. 12 months
• **12 months** = a Sub-standard asset automatically transitions to Doubtful after exactly 12 months in the Sub-standard category — there is no discretion for the bank to delay this reclassification. • **Provisioning consequence** — the transition from Sub-standard (15%) to Doubtful D1 (25% for secured portion) means the bank must immediately increase its provision, reducing reported profits. • The 12-month clock starts from the day the loan was first classified as NPA (i.e., day 91 of being overdue for a term loan). • 💡 6 months is wrong — no such intermediate classification exists; 18 months is wrong — by 18 months the asset has already been Doubtful for 6 months; 24 months is wrong — at 24 months the loan has been Doubtful for a full year and is approaching the D2 provisioning bracket.
The SARFAESI Act allows banks to sell the assets of a defaulter through?
Correct Answer: A. Public auction or private treaty
• **Public auction or private treaty** = SARFAESI gives banks two routes to sell secured assets after taking possession: a public auction (where any buyer can bid, subject to a minimum 'upset price') or a private treaty (direct negotiation with a specific buyer). • **Upset price** — the bank must set a reserve (upset) price for the asset before auction; if no bid meets this price, the bank can re-auction or use the private treaty route. • This avoids the need for court approval of each sale, dramatically speeding up the recovery process compared to civil court decrees. • 💡 Only through court proceedings is wrong — the entire purpose of SARFAESI is to avoid going to court; Only to the government is wrong — assets can be sold to any eligible buyer; Giving them away for free is wrong — banks are mandated to maximize recovery for their depositors.
Which of the following is NOT a method of debt recovery for banks?
Correct Answer: B. Directly seizing any property without notice
• **Directly seizing any property without notice** = banks have no legal right to seize any property without following due process — they must issue the mandatory 60-day demand notice under SARFAESI or obtain a decree from DRT before enforcement. • **Legitimate recovery channels** — banks can use: SARFAESI Act (for secured loans ≥ ₹1 lakh), DRT/DRAT (for loans ≥ ₹20 lakh), Lok Adalats (for smaller settlements up to ₹20 lakh), and IBC/NCLT (for corporate insolvency). • Unauthorised seizure of property exposes bank officials to civil and criminal liability under general law. • 💡 SARFAESI Act is wrong as an answer — it is a valid, court-free recovery mechanism; Debt Recovery Tribunals are wrong — DRTs are a legitimate statutory forum; Lok Adalats are wrong — Lok Adalats provide speedy, low-cost settlement for smaller claims and are fully recognised under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
What is the full form of OTR in the context of managing stressed loans?
Correct Answer: D. One-Time Restructuring
• **One-Time Restructuring** = OTR is a special dispensation by RBI allowing banks to modify the repayment terms of a stressed loan once (extension of tenure, moratorium, reduction in rate) without classifying it as an NPA, provided the borrower's account was standard before restructuring. • **COVID-19 OTR** — the most prominent use of OTR was during the COVID-19 pandemic (RBI circular, August 2020), where banks were allowed to restructure eligible personal and corporate loans impacted by the pandemic. • Once restructured under OTR, the account is monitored; if it defaults again within the prescribed period, it is immediately downgraded to NPA. • 💡 Official Tax Recovery is wrong — tax recovery is handled by income tax/GST authorities, not banks; One-Time Reconstruction is wrong — ARC restructuring is different and is not abbreviated as OTR; Over-The-Rate is wrong — it is a fabricated term with no banking application.
A loan where the interest and/or installment of principal remain overdue for two harvest seasons is known as an NPA in which sector?
Correct Answer: C. Agricultural sector
• **Agricultural sector** = RBI has a special NPA norm for farm loans: for short-duration crops (e.g., paddy, wheat), a loan becomes NPA if overdue for 2 crop seasons; for long-duration crops (e.g., sugarcane, rubber), 1 crop season is the threshold. • **Why different from 90 days** — agricultural income is seasonal and tied to monsoon/harvest cycles; applying a rigid 90-day rule would unfairly penalise farmers who genuinely wait for harvest to repay. • This special treatment also reflects government policy to support food security and the farming community. • 💡 Service sector is wrong — standard 90-day NPA rule applies; Retail sector is wrong — standard 90-day rule applies to personal/retail loans; Industrial sector is wrong — industrial (corporate) loans follow the standard 90-day overdue norm.
The ratio of Gross NPA to Gross Advances is called?
Correct Answer: B. Gross NPA Ratio
• **Gross NPA Ratio** = Gross NPA Ratio = (Gross NPA ÷ Gross Advances) × 100; it is the primary measure of a bank's asset quality — a higher ratio means a larger share of the bank's loan book is non-performing. • **Trend** — India's banking sector Gross NPA ratio peaked at ~11–12% in 2018 (after RBI's Asset Quality Review forced full recognition); it improved to ~3.9% by FY2023 due to IBC resolutions, write-offs, and improved credit monitoring. • Net NPA Ratio = (Gross NPA − Provisions) ÷ (Gross Advances − Provisions); Net NPA shows what remains at risk after the bank's provisions buffer. • 💡 Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is wrong — CAR measures a bank's capital against risk-weighted assets, not NPA; Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is wrong — CRR is the proportion of deposits held with RBI, a liquidity tool; Net Interest Margin is wrong — NIM measures the difference between interest earned and interest paid, a profitability metric.