NPA & SARFAESI — Set 7
Banking · NPA और SARFAESI · Questions 61–70 of 80
The 90-day overdue norm for NPA classification was adopted by India to align with?
Correct Answer: C. International Best Practices (Basel Norms)
• **International Best Practices (Basel Norms)** = India adopted the 90-day overdue norm in 2004 to align its NPA recognition standards with the Basel Committee's global banking framework. • **Basel Norms** provide a universal yardstick for credit risk measurement — a consistent 90-day threshold allows cross-country comparison of bank health. • 💡 Agricultural seasons influence NPA rules only for crop loans (2 seasons), not the general 90-day norm; Local laws and financial year end have no role in this standardisation.
Which of the following is an example of an 'Intangible' asset that cannot be seized under the SARFAESI Act?
Correct Answer: A. Goodwill and Brand Value
• **Goodwill and Brand Value** = SARFAESI Act empowers secured creditors to take possession of tangible secured assets only — assets that can be physically held, auctioned, or assigned. • **Intangible assets** like goodwill, brand value, or intellectual property have no physical form, making possession and auction impossible under the Act's enforcement mechanism. • 💡 Machinery, Land & Buildings, and Vehicles are all tangible secured assets — they can be seized and sold under Section 13(4) of SARFAESI; goodwill cannot.
A 'Non-fund based' facility becoming an NPA usually happens when?
Correct Answer: C. A bank guarantee is invoked but not paid by the customer
• **A bank guarantee is invoked but not paid by the customer** = Non-fund based facilities (Bank Guarantees, Letters of Credit) do not involve immediate cash outflow — the bank only promises to pay if the borrower defaults. • **When the guarantee is invoked**, the bank pays on the borrower's behalf; if the borrower cannot reimburse the bank, the amount crystallises into a direct credit exposure and becomes NPA if unpaid beyond 90 days. • 💡 Savings deposits, ATM cash levels, and employee leave have zero connection to NPA classification — they are operational matters, not credit risk events.
The 'Debt Recovery Tribunal' (DRT) was established under which act?
Correct Answer: A. Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993
• **Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions (RDDBFI) Act, 1993** = DRTs were specifically created under this Act to provide a dedicated fast-track forum for banks to recover dues above ₹20 lakh. • **Appeals** against DRT orders go to the Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal (DRAT); the DRT issues a Recovery Certificate that empowers a Recovery Officer to attach and sell the defaulter's property. • 💡 Banking Regulation Act 1949 governs bank licensing and operations; SARFAESI 2002 enables out-of-court asset seizure; RBI Act 1934 established the RBI — none of them created DRTs.
What is 'Restructuring' of a loan?
Correct Answer: C. Modifying the loan terms like interest rate or tenure for a stressed borrower
• **Modifying loan terms like interest rate or tenure for a stressed borrower** = Restructuring is a negotiated change to the original loan contract — typically extending tenure, reducing EMI, granting a moratorium, or lowering the interest rate — to help a viable but financially stressed borrower. • **Key rule** — A restructured account is a red flag; RBI requires banks to classify it as a 'restructured standard asset' and make higher provisions, since the risk of future default is elevated. • 💡 Closing a branch or selling the bank are corporate decisions unrelated to loan contracts; giving a free house is debt waiver, not restructuring — restructuring changes repayment terms, not the borrower's obligation.
The 'Credit Risk' of a bank is primarily the risk of?
Correct Answer: D. Borrowers defaulting on their loan obligations
• **Borrowers defaulting on their loan obligations** = Credit risk is the risk that a borrower will fail to repay principal or interest, causing the loan to become an NPA and eroding the bank's income and capital. • **It is the largest risk category** for banks — managed through credit appraisal, collateral, credit scores, and provisioning norms set by RBI. • 💡 Building fire is operational risk; competitor branches are business/strategic risk; ATM non-usage is market/service risk — none of these involve the possibility of loan default, which is the hallmark of credit risk.
Under the SARFAESI Act, a 'Secured Creditor' refers to?
Correct Answer: B. A bank or financial institution that holds collateral
• **A bank or financial institution that holds collateral** = Under SARFAESI, a 'Secured Creditor' is any bank, financial institution, or Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) that has a security interest in a borrower's asset as collateral for a loan. • **Special powers** under SARFAESI — only secured creditors can issue the 60-day notice (Section 13(2)) and seize assets (Section 13(4)) without going to court. • 💡 An insurance company is a policyholder's counterparty, not a lender; a government tax official has statutory authority, not a contractual security interest; the borrower is the debtor, the opposite of a creditor.
What is the role of 'Security Interest' in a loan agreement?
Correct Answer: B. It is the legal right of the lender to seize collateral upon default
• **Legal right of the lender to seize collateral upon default** = A security interest is a charge created by the borrower in favour of the lender over a specific asset — it gives the lender the legal right to take and sell that asset if the borrower defaults. • **CERSAI** (Central Registry of Securitisation Asset Reconstruction and Security Interest) registers all such security interests to prevent double financing on the same asset. • 💡 Interest rate is the cost of borrowing, not a legal claim on assets; insurance premium protects against risk of loss, not default; prepayment reward would be a discount, not a security right.
Which of the following is a 'Direct' impact of high NPAs on a bank?
Correct Answer: C. Reduced profitability and lending capacity
• **Reduced profitability and lending capacity** = High NPAs directly cut a bank's interest income (since NPA accounts stop earning interest) and force the bank to set aside large provisions from profits, shrinking both earnings and capital available to lend. • **Cascading effect** — lower lending capacity means fewer new loans, which reduces the bank's ability to support economic growth and can trigger rating downgrades and higher borrowing costs for the bank itself. • 💡 High NPAs actually force banks to raise lending rates (not lower them) to recover costs; new staff recruitment shrinks under stress; the bank's stock price typically falls, not rises, when NPA levels surge.
What is the 'Provision Coverage Ratio' (PCR)?
Correct Answer: B. The ratio of provisions to gross NPAs
• **Ratio of provisions made to gross NPAs** = PCR measures what percentage of its bad loans a bank has already set aside money to cover — a PCR of 70% means the bank has provisioned for 70% of its gross NPA value. • **RBI benchmark** — RBI has recommended a minimum PCR of 70% for scheduled commercial banks; a higher PCR signals greater financial resilience and conservative management. • 💡 Profit-to-salary, gold-to-cash, and branch-to-customer ratios are unrelated internal metrics — PCR is specifically a bad-loan buffer indicator, not a general operational ratio.